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This probably ought to be on the trombone forum but I thought some of you doublers might have an answer. Is it customary to switch the first and third trombone parts on the Farandole after the first 8 bars? Makes sense to do it to me.

Trombone switch? Isn't that the thing on your right thumb?

Nope.bass players gotta man up!

But I don't like high A's .........................whimper.........................sob............................whine.......................... Seriously is there anything in the literature about why he would write the bass trombone part an octave above the first. When Shaw transcribed it in Many Moods he corrected Bizet's obvious blunder.

It isn't uncommon for the third trombone to have the solo in some orchestra pieces. But yeah, bass player can man up.

Ok, Ok! I get it. I'll play the damn part as written.

bloke wrote:Plug in your large shank 6-1/2 AL...or even your 5G.

No way! I am not about to defile my bass trombone with a tenor mouthpiece. It's either my 60 or the highway.

Seriously, all joking aside, if I can't do it well I'll just hand it off to the principal and swallow my pride.

It totally depends on the players and the situation. I take pride in having a good high register and I like to keep it that way, so I usually prefer to play it for the workout. Doug Yeo has an excellent high register, but the last time I saw the Boston Pops parts, they were marked to switch that passage to the first trombone. That change likely predates him, but he probably saw no reason to re-introduce that stress to his life. Jim Markey may very well switch it back when it comes up...or not.

glad to hear I am not the only one who hates that part.....