Playing the tympani part

[dfear]

I play in a church quintet and we have ran into similar instances pretty often. I have played the timpani part on similar things as the afore mentioned Telleman, as well as with brass, organ, and timpani. It all ways seems to complete the piece, and is noticeable when the timpani part is not there.

[imperialbari]

In most Vienna classic and baroque contexts the timpani play only two notes. And not just any two notes, but the tonica and the dominant. Within tonal music that is the bass function reduced to its most basic and still extremely effective function.

The ceremonial military and court related brasses of that era also were mostly limited to these two chords. Trumpet and timpani were included in the orchestra to (mostly) represent ceremony (Bach’s cantatas and orchestra suites). Period performance practices had it that a third trumpet always could be added and just play from the timpani part.

I once played 1st horn in a small orchestra, which had programmed Beethoven’s violin concerto. To keep the lone (bass) trombone happy I wrote him a part, which mostly was based on the timpany line. Only when the trumpets were employed in more complex chord progressions, I took the notes from the string bass or the 2nd bassoon.

Klaus

[Craig Garner]

It was only two notes for the whole piece, but it seemed to add something without sounding "wrong."

OK, I'll be the bad guy and take the opposing point of view here. While it may not sound "wrong," it is certainly not right. In fact, it is probably not right a lot more than you think. imperialbari is correct, the music you are playing centers around tonic and dominant, but those are not the only notes in the piece. And while the timpani is a "pitched" instrument, it is still scored as a "high" note and a "low" note. For example, let's say the timp is scored for G "high:dominant" and C "low:tonic."

The music you are playing doesn't have "chords" in the way we think of them today, but let's use the term "chord" anyway, just for example. Let's say the music has an F chord: F, A, & C The timp may be playing a C because C is in the chord. If you play the timp part, and play a C, is doesn't sound "wrong" because C is in the chord. BUT, if the bass part is not in root position (F), the resulting sound may not be the desired effect, and may sound "odd" to the audience since the chord is in an inverted position. Inverted chords like this (with the bass on top) are rare in Baroque music, because they don't sound "right."

Worse yet, if the music modulates, as Baroque music will do, the logical modulation will be to G (the new tonic) and the dominant changes to D. When the cadence comes - D to G - the only notes availe to timp are C & G, and while the rest of the group is playing D to G....you are playing C to G. Now, you are getting closer to Ives than Telemann. (this clash is barely noticable on timp, but it will sound like you played a wrong note on tuba)

My personal opinion, don't do this. I think it is better to play in octaves with the 4th part, to provide support, but only play when the timp "would have" been playing. So, if the timp part is out for 12 bars and then plays 12 bars, you play the 4th part starting in bar 13 and play to bar 24.